2024 Correct and Up-to-date ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL BrainDumps
Current ISTQB-CTFL dumps Preparation through Our Practice Test
NEW QUESTION # 109
A document descnbes the test procedures that have been derived for the identified test sets Among other things, the order in which the test cases in the corresponding test set are to be executed according to the dependencies described by preconditions and postconditions is specified This document is a typical work product produced as part of:
- A. Test analysis
- B. Test monitoring and control
- C. Test design.
- D. Test Implementation.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Test implementation involves finalizing the test procedures, including the order of execution of test cases based on their dependencies, preconditions, and postconditions. This phase ensures that all necessary test scripts, test data, and test environments are ready for execution. According to the ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0, test implementation is the phase where detailed test procedures are derived and documented, making it a critical step before actual test execution.
NEW QUESTION # 110
Which of the following statements about Experience Based Techniques (EBT) is correct?
- A. EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies.
- B. EBT is based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques.
- C. EBT is done as a second stage of testing, after non-experienced-based testing took place.
- D. EBT require broad and deep knowledge in testing but not necessarily in the application or technological domain.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Experience based techniques (EBT) are techniques that use the knowledge, intuition and skills of the test engineers to design and execute tests. EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies, domains, applications or systems. EBT are not based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques, but rather on their personal judgment and creativity. EBT are not done as a second stage of testing, after non-experience-based testing took place, but rather as a complementary or alternative approach to other techniques. EBT require broad and deep knowledge in both testing and the application or technological domain, as this can help the test engineer identify potential risks, scenarios or defects. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 5, page 48-49.
NEW QUESTION # 111
Which of the following is a key characteristic of informal reviews?
- A. Low cost
- B. Individual preparation
- C. Kick-off meeting
- D. Metrics analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
A key characteristic of informal reviews is low cost. Informal reviews are a type of review that does not follow a formal process or have any formal documentation. Informal reviews are usually performed by individuals or small groups of peers or colleagues who have some knowledge or interest in the product under review.
Informal reviews can be done at any time and for any purpose, such as checking for errors, clarifying doubts, sharing ideas, etc. Informal reviews have low cost, as they do not require much time, effort, or resources to conduct. The other options are not key characteristics of informal reviews. Kick-off meeting is a characteristic of formal reviews, such as inspections or walkthroughs. Kick-off meeting is a meeting that is held before the review process starts, where the roles and responsibilities of the participants are defined, the objectives and scope of the review are agreed, and the logistics and schedule of the review are planned. Individual preparation is a characteristic of formal reviews, such as inspections or walkthroughs. Individual preparation is an activity that is performed by the reviewers before the review meeting, where they examine the product under review and identify any issues or questions that need to be discussed or resolved during the review meeting. Metrics analysis is a characteristic of formal reviews, such as inspections or walkthroughs. Metrics analysis is an activity that is performed after the review process is completed, where the data and results of the review are collected and analyzed to measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the review, as well as to identify any improvement actions or lessons learned forfuture reviews. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 9.
NEW QUESTION # 112
Which are the MAIN goals of risk management in a software project?
- A. To reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact.
- B. To increase focus on preventative processes and to increase satisfaction for the testers.
- C. To control contractual problems and minimize the impacts of company policies.
- D. To increase the success probability for the project regardless of costs.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 113
Which or the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: An integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15.
- A. Less than 1.1 through 15. more than 15
- B. negative numbers. 1 through 15. above 15
- C. Less than 0.1 through 14. 15 and more
- D. Less than 1.1 through 14. more than 15
Answer: A
Explanation:
Equivalence partitioning is a black-box test design technique where inputs to the software or system are divided into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behavior. For an integer field that should accept values from 1 to 15, the valid equivalence class is 1 through 15. The invalid equivalence classes are numbers less than 1 and numbers more than 15. Therefore, option D, "Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15," correctly identifies the valid equivalence class along with the two invalid classes, covering all possible input scenarios for the field. Options A, B, and C either do not accurately capture the valid range or incorrectly specify the range boundaries.
NEW QUESTION # 114
Which of the following statements regarding inspection is NOT true?
- A. An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author.
- B. The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems.
- C. An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria
- D. An inspection can be performed by peers.
Answer: B
Explanation:
An inspection is a type of review that follows a defined process with formal entry and exit criteria and roles and responsibilities for participants. An inspection can be performed by peers with different roles, such as moderator, author, reviewer and scribe. The following statement about inspection is not true:
B) The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems. This statement is not true, as the main purpose of an inspection is to find defects or issues in a work product, not to find solutions to the problems. Finding solutions to the problems is a debugging or problem-solving activity that is usually performed by the author or developer after receiving the inspection report. The following statements about inspection are true:
A) An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author. This statement is true, as an inspection requires a moderator role who leads the inspection process and ensures that it follows the rules and standards. The moderator should be trained in inspection techniques and should not be the author of the work product under inspection, in order to avoid bias or conflict of interest.
C) An inspection can be performed by peers. This statement is true, as an inspection involves peer review, which means that the work product under inspection is evaluated by people who have similar roles or expertise as the author, but who are not directly involved in creating or modifying the work product.
D) An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria. This statement is true, as an inspection follows a formal process that consists of six main steps: planning, kick-off meeting, individual preparation, review meeting, rework and follow-up. Each step has defined rules and checklists to guide the participants and ensure consistency and quality. Each step also has entry and exit criteria to ensure that the prerequisites and objectives are met before moving to the next step. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page 28-29.
NEW QUESTION # 115
Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor m determining the extent of testing required?
- A. Budget to do testing
- B. Time available to do testing
- C. Level of risk of the product or features
- D. A particular tester involved in testing
Answer: D
Explanation:
The extent of testing required for a software product depends on various factors, such as the level of risk, the budget, and the time available. The level of risk reflects the potential impact of failures on the stakeholders and the environment. The budget determines how much resources can be allocated for testing. The time available defines the schedule and deadlines for testing activities. The particular tester involved in testing is not a deciding factor for the extent of testing required, as testing should be based on objective criteria and not on personal preferences or abilities. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 2, page 14-15.
NEW QUESTION # 116
Which sequence of stated in the answer choices is correct in accordance with the following figure depicting the life-cycle of a defect?
- A. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1->S2->S3
- B. S0->S1->S2->S3->S5->S1
- C. S0->S1 ->S2->S3->S5->S3->S4
- D. S0->S1->S2~>S3->S4
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0, the life cycle of a defect typically follows a sequence from its discovery to its closure. In the provided figure, it starts with S0 (New), moves to S1 (Assigned), then to S2 (Resolved), followed by S3 (Verified). If the defect is not fixed, it can be Re-opened (S5) and goes back for verification (S3). Once verified, it is Closed (S4). References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.4.3, Page 17.
NEW QUESTION # 117
Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?
- A. Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it
- B. Code inspection
- C. Coverage analysis
- D. Functional Testing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Functional testing is an example of black-box dynamic testing. Black-box testing (also known as specification-based testing) is a type of testing that does not consider the internal structure or implementation of the system under test, but rather its external behavior or functionality. Dynamic testing is a type of testing that involves executing the system under test with various inputs and observing its outputs. Functional testing is a type of black-box dynamic testing that verifies that the system under test performs its intended functions according to its requirements or specifications. Functional testing can be performed at various levels and scopes depending on the objectives and criteria of testing. The other options are not examples of black-box dynamic testing. Code inspection is an example of white-box static testing. White-box testing (also known as structure-based testing) is a type of testing that considers the internal structure or implementation of the system under test. Static testing is a type of testing that does not involve executing the system under test, but rather analyzing it for defects, errors, or violations of standards. Code inspection is a type of white-box static testing that involves examining the source code of the system under test for quality, readability, maintainability, etc. Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it is an example of white-box dynamic testing. Memory leaks are defects that occur when a program fails to release memory that it has allocated but no longer needs. Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it requires knowledge and access to the internal structure or implementation of the program, such as memory allocation and deallocation mechanisms, pointers, references, etc. Coverage analysis is an example of white-box static testing. Coverage analysis is a technique that measures how much of the code or structure of the system under test has been exercised by a test suite. Coverage analysis requires knowledge and access to the internal structure or implementation of the system under test, such as statements, branches, paths, conditions, etc. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 7.
NEW QUESTION # 118
Which of the following can be considered a VALID exit criterion?
I Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.
II. The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report.
III. Accuracy measures, such as code, functionality or risk coverage.
IV Residual risks such as lack of code coverage in certain areas.
- A. I, II, III
- B. I, III, IV
- C. III, IV
- D. II, III, IV
Answer: B
Explanation:
An exit criterion is a condition that defines when a test activity has been completed or when a test phase can be concluded. An exit criterion can be based on various factors, such as:
I) Estimates of defect density or reliability measures. These are quantitative measures that indicate how many defects are present in the software product or how likely it is to fail under certain conditions. These can be used as exit criteria to ensure that the software product meets a certain level of quality or performance before moving to the next phase or releasing it to the customer.
III) Accuracy measures, such as code coverage, functionality coverage or risk coverage. These are quantitative measures that indicate how much of the software product has been tested in terms of its code, functionality or risk. These can be used as exit criteria to ensure that the test suite is adequate or complete before moving to the next phase or releasing it to the customer.
IV) Residual risks, such as lack of code coverage in certain areas, unresolved defects or unknown factors. These are qualitative measures that indicate the remaining risks or uncertainties associated with the software product after testing. These can be used as exit criteria to ensure that the residual risks are acceptable or manageable before moving to the next phase or releasing it to the customer. The following factor is not a valid exit criterion:
II) The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report. This is not a valid exit criterion, as it does not reflect the quality or completeness of the testing process or product. A test report is a document that summarizes the results and outcomes of a test activity or phase. A test report can be used as an input for deciding whether to exit a test activity or phase, but it is not a condition that defines when to exit. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 2, page 13; Chapter 6, page 58-59.
NEW QUESTION # 119
The following 4 equivalence classes are given:
Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?
- A. -99; 99:101; 1001
- B. -100; 100:1000; 1001
- C. -500; 0; 100; 1000
- D. -1000; -100; 100; 1000
Answer: D
Explanation:
The question is about selecting the correct test values for x based on equivalence partitioning. Equivalence partitioning is a software test design technique that divides the input data of a software unit into partitions of equivalent data from which test cases can be derived. In this case, the given equivalence classes are:
(x \leq -100)
(-100 < x < 100)
(100 \leq x < 1000)
(x \geq 1000)
Option D provides a value from each of these partitions:
For (x \leq -100), it gives -1000.
For (-100 < x < 100), it gives -100 and 100.
For (100 \leq x < 1000), it gives 500.
For (x \geq 1000), it gives 1500.
So, option D covers all four given equivalence classes with appropriate values.
Reference:
1: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 38
2: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 39
3: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 40
NEW QUESTION # 120
Which of the following statements regarding inspection isNOTtrue?
- A. An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author.
- B. The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems.
- C. An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria
- D. An inspection can be performed by peers.
Answer: B
Explanation:
An inspection is a type of review that follows a defined process with formal entry and exit criteria and roles and responsibilities for participants. An inspection can be performed by peers with different roles, such as moderator, author, reviewer and scribe. The following statement about inspection is not true:
* B) The main purpose of an inspection is to find solutions to the problems. This statement is not true, as the main purpose of an inspection is to find defects or issues in a work product, not to find solutions to the problems. Finding solutions to the problems is a debugging or problem-solving activity that is usually performed by the author or developer after receiving the inspection report. The following statements about inspection are true:
* A) An inspection may be led by a trained moderator who shall not be the author. This statement is true, as an inspection requires a moderator role who leads the inspection process and ensures that it follows the rules and standards. The moderator should be trained in inspection techniques and should not be the author of the work product under inspection, in order to avoid bias or conflict of interest.
* C) An inspection can be performed by peers. This statement is true, as an inspection involves peer review, which means that the work product under inspection is evaluated by people who have similar roles or expertise as the author, but who are not directly involved in creating or modifying the work product.
* D) An inspection shall follow a formal process based on rules and checklists with entry and exit criteria.
This statement is true, as an inspection follows a formal process that consists of six main steps:
planning, kick-off meeting, individual preparation, review meeting, rework and follow-up. Each step has defined rules and checklists to guide the participants and ensure consistency and quality. Each step also has entry and exit criteria to ensure that the prerequisites and objectives are met before moving to the next step. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page 28-29.
NEW QUESTION # 121
Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?
- A. Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it
- B. Code inspection
- C. Coverage analysis
- D. Functional Testing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Functional testing is an example of black-box dynamic testing. Black-box testing (also known as specification-based testing) is a type of testing that does not consider the internal structure or implementation of the system under test, but rather its external behavior or functionality. Dynamic testing is a type of testing that involves executing the system under test with various inputs and observing its outputs. Functional testing is a type of black-box dynamic testing that verifies that the system under test performs its intended functions according to its requirements or specifications. Functional testing can be performed at various levels and scopes depending on the objectives and criteria of testing. The other options are not examples of black-box dynamic testing. Code inspection is an example of white-box static testing. White-box testing (also known as structure-based testing) is a type of testing that considers the internal structure or implementation of the system under test. Static testing is a type of testing that does not involve executing the system under test, but rather analyzing it for defects, errors, or violations of standards. Code inspection is a type of white-box static testing that involves examining the source code of the system under test for quality, readability, maintainability, etc.
Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it is an example of white-box dynamic testing. Memory leaks are defects that occur when a program fails to release memory that it has allocated but no longer needs.
Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it requires knowledge and access to the internal structure or implementation of the program, such as memory allocation and deallocation mechanisms, pointers, references, etc. Coverage analysis is an example of white-box static testing. Coverage analysis is a technique that measures how much of the code or structure of the system under test has been exercised by a test suite.
Coverage analysis requires knowledge and access to the internal structure or implementation of the system under test, such as statements, branches, paths, conditions, etc. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 7.
NEW QUESTION # 122
In what way do Configuration Management effects testing?
- A. Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identity the tested item
- B. Configuration management is important for developers, not for testers
- C. There is very little influence of configuration management practices on the test project.
- D. Without proper configuration management, test planning cannot proceed.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Configuration management is a process that establishes and maintains consistency among work products throughout their life cycle. Configuration management affects testing in various ways, such as:
* Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identify the tested item, which can help traceability, reproducibility and accountability.
* Proper configuration management ensures that testers have access to consistent versions of software components and testware, which can help reliability, compatibility and efficiency.
* Proper configuration management ensures that testers can track changes and defects in software components and testware, which can help verification, validation and reporting.
* Proper configuration management ensures that testers can control the configuration of the test environment, which can help stability, security and performance. Configuration management is not a prerequisite for test planning, as test planning can proceed without configuration management, although it may be less effective or accurate. Configuration management is not important for developers only, but for testers as well, as it affects the quality and consistency of the testing process and products.
Configuration management has a significant influence on the test project, as it affects various aspects of
* testing, such as traceability, reproducibility, reliability, compatibility, efficiency, verification, validation, reporting, stability, security and performance. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 6, page 60-61.
NEW QUESTION # 123
The whole-team approach:
- A. is a consensus-based approach that engages the whole team in estimating the user stories
- B. promotes the idea that all team members should have a thorough understanding of test techniques
- C. promotes the idea that all team members should be responsible for the quality of the product
- D. is mostly adopted in projects aimed at developing safety-critical systems, as it ensures the highest level of testing independence
Answer: C
Explanation:
This answer is correct because the whole-team approach is a way of working in agile projects where all team members share the responsibility for the quality of the product, and collaborate on delivering value to the customer. The whole-team approach involves testers, developers, business analysts, product owners, and other stakeholders in planning, designing, developing, testing, and delivering the product. The whole-team approach fosters communication, feedback, learning, and continuous improvement within the team. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.1
NEW QUESTION # 124
The tests at the bottom layer of the test pyramid:
- A. are unscripted tests produced by experience-based test techniques
- B. are defined as 'Ul Tests' or 'End-To-End tests' in the different models of the pyramid
- C. run faster than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid
- D. cover larger pieces of functionalities than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 125
......
100% Reliable Microsoft ISTQB-CTFL Exam Dumps Test Pdf Exam Material: https://certkingdom.pass4surequiz.com/ISTQB-CTFL-exam-quiz.html