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CompTIA N10-009 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 375
Which of the following is a cost-effective advantage of a split-tunnel VPN?
- A. Web traffic is filtered through a web filter.
- B. More bandwidth is required on the company's internet connection.
- C. Cloud-based traffic flows outside of the company's network.
- D. Monitoring detects insecure machines on the company's network.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A split-tunnel VPN allows some traffic to be routed through the VPN while other traffic goes directly to the internet. This setup offers several advantages, with a primary one being cost-effectiveness due to cloud-based traffic not consuming company bandwidth.
Bandwidth Utilization: Split-tunnel VPNs reduce the amount of traffic passing through the company's network, freeing up bandwidth for other uses.
Performance: By allowing internet-bound traffic to bypass the VPN, it can reduce latency and improve the performance for users accessing cloud services directly.
Cost Savings: Reduced load on the company's VPN infrastructure can lead to lower costs in terms of both hardware and bandwidth.
Network Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers VPN types, including split-tunnel configurations and their advantages.
Cisco Networking Academy: Discusses VPN technologies and the benefits of split-tunneling.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Provides detailed information on VPN setups, including the cost-effectiveness of split-tunnel VPNs.
By allowing cloud-based traffic to flow outside the company's network, a split-tunnel VPN optimizes resource usage and enhances the overall network performance without incurring extra costs for bandwidth.
NEW QUESTION # 376
You are tasked with verifying the following requirements are met in order to ensure network security.
Requirements:
Datacenter
Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage Provide a dedicated server to resolve IP addresses and hostnames correctly and handle port 53 traffic Building A Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage Provide devices to support 5 additional different office users Add an additional mobile user Replace the Telnet server with a more secure solution Screened subnet Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage Provide a server to handle external 80/443 traffic Provide a server to handle port 20/21 traffic INSTRUCTIONS Drag and drop objects onto the appropriate locations. Objects can be used multiple times and not all placeholders need to be filled.
Available objects are located in both the Servers and Devices tabs of the Drag & Drop menu.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See explanation below.
Explanation:
Screened Subnet devices - Web server, FTP server
Building A devices - SSH server top left, workstations on all 5 on the right, laptop on bottom left DataCenter devices - DNS server.
NEW QUESTION # 377
Which of the following routing technologies allows all users to access the internet using only two public IPs?
- A. BGP
- B. EIGRP
- C. PAT
- D. VIP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Port Address Translation enables multiple internal users to share a small number of public IP addresses by differentiating sessions using port numbers, allowing many devices to access the internet through limited public IPs.
NEW QUESTION # 378
A network administrator is migrating a domain to a different provider. As part of the onboarding process, the new provider requests domain ownership proof. Which of the following records would the administrator most likely need to create?
- A. PTR
- B. TXT
- C. A
- D. CNAME
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best answer is D. TXT. When a provider asks an administrator to prove ownership of a domain, the most common method is to have the administrator place a specific verification value inside a DNS TXT record. The provider then checks public DNS for that value. If the expected text is present, it confirms that the person managing the migration has control over the domain's DNS settings.
This matches how TXT records are commonly used in real network environments. They are flexible and can store readable text strings for verification, policy, and security-related purposes. In Network+ study material, TXT records are frequently associated with things like domain validation and email-related configurations such as SPF and other verification mechanisms.
The other record types do not fit this task. An A record maps a hostname to an IPv4 address. A CNAME points one name to another name. A PTR record is used for reverse DNS, mapping an IP address back to a hostname. None of those are typically created just to prove domain ownership during provider onboarding.
The key clue is the phrase "domain ownership proof", which strongly points to a TXT record.
NEW QUESTION # 379
After a networking intern plugged in a switch, a significant number of users in a building lost connectivity.
Which of the following is the most likely root cause?
- A. VTP update
- B. Native VLAN mismatch
- C. Port security issue
- D. LLDP misconfiguration
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
When a switch is improperly connected to a network, it can cause widespread connectivity issues, especially if there's a misconfiguration in VLAN settings. A Native VLAN mismatch occurs when two switches connected via a trunk link have different native VLANs configured for untagged traffic. This can cause traffic to be sent to the wrong VLAN or dropped, resulting in connectivity loss for users.
Scenario Analysis: The intern likely connected the switch without ensuring that the trunk port's native VLAN matched the existing network configuration. This is a common issue in Cisco-based networks when trunk links are misconfigured.
Why not VTP update? VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) updates propagate VLAN configurations across switches. While a VTP misconfiguration could cause issues, it's less likely to immediately disrupt connectivity for many users unless the VTP server deleted critical VLANs, which is not implied here.
Why not Port security issue? Port security restricts access based on MAC addresses, typically affecting individual ports, not causing widespread outages.
Why not LLDP misconfiguration? Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is used for device discovery, and misconfiguration is unlikely to cause a broad loss of connectivity.
Reference:CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Objective 2.2: Explain the purpose of network segmentation and VLAN configuration. The CompTIA Network+ Study Guide (e.g., Chapter 6: Switching) discusses VLAN trunking and the importance of matching native VLANs on trunk links to prevent connectivity issues. Native VLAN mismatches are highlighted as a common cause of network disruptions.
NEW QUESTION # 380
Which of the following methods ensures that devices authenticate before gaining access to the network, using a RADIUS server for identity verification?
- A. 802.1X
- B. SSO
- C. MAC filtering
- D. Standard ACL
Answer: A
Explanation:
802.1X is a port-based Network Access Control (NAC) method that enforces authentication before allowing access to the network. It uses a RADIUS server for identity verification and policy enforcement, ensuring only authorized users/devices gain access.
* A. Standard ACL filters traffic by IP, not identity.
* B. MAC filtering controls devices by hardware address but can be spoofed.
* D. SSO (Single Sign-On) provides user convenience across services, not network-level access control.
References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
* Domain: Network Security - NAC, 802.1X authentication, identity-based access.
NEW QUESTION # 381
Which of the following disaster recovery metrics is used to describe the amount of data that is lost since the last backup?
- A. MTTR
- B. RPO
- C. RTO
- D. MTBF
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Definition of RPO:
* Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is a disaster recovery metric that describes the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It indicates the point in time to which data must be recovered to resume normal operations after a disaster.
* For example, if the RPO is set to 24 hours, then the business could tolerate losing up to 24 hours' worth of data in the event of a disruption.
* Why RPO is Important:
* RPO is critical for determining backup frequency and helps businesses decide how often they need to back up their data. A lower RPO means more frequent backups and less potential data loss.
* Comparison with Other Metrics:
* MTTR (Mean Time to Repair): Refers to the average time required to repair a system or component and return it to normal operation.
* RTO (Recovery Time Objective): The maximum acceptable length of time that a computer, system, network, or application can be down after a failure or disaster occurs.
* MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures): The predicted elapsed time between inherent failures of a system during operation.
* How RPO is Used in Disaster Recovery:
* Organizations establish RPOs to ensure that they can recover data within a timeframe that is acceptable to business operations. This involves creating a backup plan that meets the RPO requirements.
References:
* CompTIA Network+ study materials and certification guides.
NEW QUESTION # 382
Which of the following should a network engineer check to verify that updates are still being released for a device?
- A. Baseline configuration
- B. Asset inventory licensing
- C. Software development life cycle
- D. EOL documentation
Answer: D
Explanation:
End-of-life documentation indicates the support status of a device, including whether updates and patches are still being released by the vendor.
NEW QUESTION # 383
Which of the following technologies are X.509 certificates most commonly associated with?
- A. PKI
- B. VLAN tagging
- C. MFA
- D. LDAP
Answer: A
Explanation:
X.509 certificates are most commonly associated with Public Key Infrastructure (PKI). These certificates are used for a variety of security functions, including digital signatures, encryption, and authentication.
PKI: X.509 certificates are a fundamental component of PKI, used to manage encryption keys and authenticate users and devices.
Digital Certificates: They are used to establish secure communications over networks, such as SSL/TLS for websites and secure email communication.
Authentication and Encryption: X.509 certificates provide the means to securely exchange keys and verify identities in various applications, ensuring data integrity and confidentiality.
NEW QUESTION # 384
An employee plugs a personal laptop into a network jack in a secured IDF but cannot obtain a network address. A network administrator then plugs a company-issued laptop into this same jack and successfully gains access. Which of the following security features best explains this situation?
- A. Untrusted zone
- B. Screened subnet
- C. ACL
- D. MAC filtering
Answer: D
Explanation:
The network jack is allowing access only for devices with approved MAC addresses. The personal laptop fails because its MAC address is not on the allowed list, while the company- issued laptop succeeds because its MAC address is authorized.
NEW QUESTION # 385
A network engineer is deploying switches at a new remote office. The switches have been preconfigured with hostnames and STP priority values. Based on the following table:
Switch Name
Priority
core-sw01
24576
access-sw01
28672
distribution-sw01
32768
access-sw02
36864
Which of the following switches will become the root bridge?
- A. access-sw02
- B. distribution-sw01
- C. core-sw01
- D. access-sw01
Answer: C
Explanation:
The switch with the lowest STP priority becomes the root bridge.In the given table, core-sw01 has the lowest priority value of 24576. Therefore, it will be elected as the root bridge in the Spanning Tree Protocol topology.
Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 386
Which of the following technologies uses a VIP to provide gateway redundancy between two routers?
- A. BGP
- B. LACP
- C. PAT
- D. FHRP
Answer: D
Explanation:
First Hop Redundancy Protocols (such as HSRP or VRRP) use a virtual IP address shared between routers to provide a redundant gateway.
NEW QUESTION # 387
A network engineer is providing basic, public network connectivity to a VPC. Which of the following should the engineer implement?
- A. Direct Connect
- B. NFV
- C. Internet gateway
- D. Site-to-site VPN
Answer: C
Explanation:
An internet gateway provides public network connectivity to a VPC by allowing resources inside the VPC to send and receive traffic from the internet.
NEW QUESTION # 388
A medical clinic recently configured a guest wireless network on the existing router. Since then, guests have been changing the music on the speaker system. Which of the following actions should the clinic take to prevent unauthorized access? (Select two).
- A. Set up a syslog server to log who is making changes.
- B. Configure GRE on the wireless router.
- C. Isolate smart devices to their own network segment.
- D. Configure IPS to prevent guests from making changes.
- E. Change the default credentials.
- F. Install a new AP on the network.
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
*A: Isolate smart devices to their own network segment: Network segmentation using VLANs or separate SSIDs ensures that smart devices (like speakers) are not on the same network as guests, preventing unauthorized control.
*E: Change the default credentials: Many IoT devices (e.g., smart speakers) come with default usernames and passwords. If these are not changed, unauthorized users can easily take control.
*Why not the other options?
*B: Configure IPS: IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) detects threats but cannot block specific guest actions on an IoT device.
*C: Install a new AP: A new access point does not solve the unauthorized control issue.
*D: Set up a syslog server: Helps with logging, but does not prevent unauthorized access.
*F: Configure GRE: Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) is used for VPN tunneling, which is irrelevant in this case.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Guide - Chapter 11: Network Security
NEW QUESTION # 389
Which of the following layers of the OSI model is responsible for end-to-end encryption?
- A. Transport
- B. Session
- C. Application
- D. Presentation
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is Presentation, which is Layer 6 of the OSI model. According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, the Presentation layer is responsible for data formatting, compression, and encryption, ensuring that data sent from the application layer of one system can be properly interpreted by the receiving system.
End-to-end encryption refers to encrypting data before transmission and decrypting it only at the final destination, preventing intermediaries from accessing the plaintext data. In the OSI model, this encryption and decryption function is logically placed at the Presentation layer, which sits between the Application and Session layers. This layer transforms data into a standardized format and applies security mechanisms such as encryption algorithms.
While modern implementations like TLS/SSL often operate across multiple layers in real-world networking stacks, the Network+ exam adheres to the conceptual OSI model when testing knowledge. From an OSI perspective, encryption is explicitly associated with the Presentation layer.
The Application layer provides network services to end-user applications, the Session layer manages session establishment and teardown, and the Transport layer focuses on segmentation, flow control, and reliability.
None of these layers are primarily responsible for encryption within the OSI framework.
CompTIA emphasizes understanding these conceptual responsibilities, making Presentation the correct and expected answer.
NEW QUESTION # 390
A network administrator installed anew VLANto the network after a company added an additional floor to the office. Users areunable to obtain an IP addresson the new VLAN, but ports on existing VLANs are working properly. Which of the following configurations should the administrator update?
- A. Scope size
- B. Address reservations
- C. IP helper
- D. Lease time
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
When anew VLAN is created, it typically exists on a different subnet. IfDHCP servers are on a different VLAN, the networkneeds an IP helper addressto forward DHCP requests correctly. Without it, clients in the new VLANwon't receive an IP address.
Breakdown of Options:
* A. Scope size- Increasing the DHCP scope would not resolve the issue if requestsaren't reaching the server.
* B. Address reservations- Reservations only assign specific addresses to devices; they do not fix DHCP communication issues.
* C. Lease time- Changing the lease timedoes not impact DHCP functionality across VLANs.
* D. IP helper-Correct answer.This forwardsDHCP requestsacross VLANs to the DHCP server.
NEW QUESTION # 391
As part of a recovery strategy, a network administrator needs to make sure no more than eight hours of data loss occurs. Which of the following DR metrics describes this requirement?
- A. MTTR
- B. RPO
- C. RTO
- D. MTBF
Answer: B
Explanation:
Recovery Point Objective defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time, so an eight-hour requirement specifies the allowable data loss window.
NEW QUESTION # 392
Users are unable to access files on their department share located on flle_server 2. The network administrator has been tasked with validating routing between networks hosting workstation A and file server 2.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each router to review output, identity any Issues, and configure the appropriate solution If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of trie simulation, please click the reset All button;
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution configuration below in Explanation.
Explanation:
A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.
A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.
A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 393
Which of the following routing technologies uses an attribute list for path selection?
- A. OSPF
- B. EIGRP
- C. BGP
- D. RIP
Answer: C
Explanation:
BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) uses a series of path attributes (such as AS path, local preference, MED, etc.) to determine the best path for routing decisions. This attribute-based decision-making makes BGP distinct from protocols like:
- RIP, which uses hop count.
- EIGRP, which uses a composite metric based on bandwidth and delay.
- OSPF, which uses cost based on link speed.
NEW QUESTION # 394
A network architect is implementing a VPN solution for remote workers. The architect wants to ensure that data transmitted through the VPN is protected from eavesdropping and tampering.
Which of the following solutions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
- A. EAP
- B. IPSec
- C. AES
- D. TKIP
- E. SSL
- F. SSH
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
AES provides strong encryption to protect VPN data from eavesdropping.
IPSec ensures secure VPN tunnels with both encryption and integrity protection, preventing tampering.
NEW QUESTION # 395
Which of the following network security devices is deployed out-of-band to monitor traffic without introducing latency?
- A. Load balancer
- B. IPS
- C. IDS
- D. Firewall
Answer: C
Explanation:
An IDS (Intrusion Detection System) is deployed out-of-band, meaning it passively monitors network traffic using a SPAN/mirror port or network tap. It detects and analyzes suspicious traffic without introducing latency since it does not sit in-line.
* A. IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) is in-line and can block traffic but may add latency.
* C. Load balancer distributes traffic across servers for performance and redundancy, not for threat detection.
* D. Firewall filters traffic at the perimeter or internally; it can affect latency but does not provide the same in-depth attack analysis.
References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):
* Domain: Network Security - IDS vs. IPS, in-band vs. out-of-band monitoring, passive detection methods.
NEW QUESTION # 396
A network engineer needs to correlate findings and receive alerts if there are brute force attacks, DDoS attacks, or port scanning happening within their network. Which of the following network monitoring technologies should the engineer implement?
- A. SIEM
- B. SNMPv3
- C. Syslog collector
- D. Packet capture
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Security Information and Event Management system aggregates logs and events from multiple sources, correlates them, and generates alerts for suspicious activities such as brute force attempts, DDoS attacks, and port scanning.
NEW QUESTION # 397
A device is experiencing disconnection from the wireless network. A network support engineer needs to find the root cause of the issue. Which of the following should the engineer use to isolate the device in a packet capture?
- A. MAC
- B. PSK
- C. ESSID
- D. BSSID
Answer: A
Explanation:
The engineer should use the device's MAC address to isolate it in a packet capture. A MAC address uniquely identifies a network interface at Layer 2. When troubleshooting wireless disconnections, filtering a packet capture by the client's MAC address allows the engineer to focus on frames sent to and from that specific device. This can reveal authentication problems, association failures, deauthentication frames, roaming issues, retransmissions, signal-related problems, or other wireless communication events.
The CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives include wireless troubleshooting, packet capture analysis, Layer
2 addressing, and identifying network clients. In wireless networks, frames include source and destination MAC addresses, making the MAC address one of the most useful identifiers for isolating a specific client.
ESSID refers to the wireless network name used by clients to identify a WLAN. PSK is the pre-shared key used for authentication in some wireless security configurations. BSSID identifies a specific wireless access point radio, usually represented by the AP's MAC address. While BSSID can help isolate traffic for a specific AP, the question asks to isolate the affected device. Therefore, the client MAC address is the best answer.
NEW QUESTION # 398
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